Yeah, the Moore-Penrose pseudoinverse is a powerful thing. H = p1-T(1)*(p1-q1) % h is a 3x1 array representing the actual pt of intersection % Let points defining second line be : p2, q2 % Let points defining first line be : p1, q1 If you are sure that your lines are not skew-parallel or parallel, the following is all you need: % Let each point be def as a 3x1 array So here's my two cents - also potentially confusing and verbose. The other results are confusing, verbose and incomplete, IMO.
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